The General “Visual Line of Sight” Certificate (GVC) is an essential qualification for commercial drone pilots in the UK. To pass the mock GVC exam, you’ll need a solid understanding of key topics covered in the test.
The GVC exam consists of 60 multiple choice questions that must be completed within 2 hours. To pass, you’ll need to score at least 75% (45 out of 60 questions correct) on the practice GVC drone exam questions.
The exam covers a broad range of subject areas, including:
- Air Law and Regulations
- Airspace Restrictions
- Aviation Safety and Human Factors
- Meteorology
- Navigation and Charts
- UAS Technical Knowledge
- Operating Procedures
To help you prepare and assess your knowledge, I’ll be posting practice GVC exam questions on all of these topics. The mock gvc questions will be in the same multiple choice format as the real test.
Use these practice GVC exam questions to identify weaker areas as you study. Mimicking the actual exam by answering sample questions within the 2 hour time limit can also help improve your test taking speed and strategy.
Mock GVC Exam Supplied By Dragon Drone Training
Dragon Drone Training offers courses for commercial drone pilots, including the A2 Certification of Competence (A2 CofC) for recreational pilots and the General Visual Line of Sight (GVC) for professional pilots. The A2 CofC is a 1-day interactive course with live Zoom lectures, a 30-question formal CAA exam, and costs £149 without VAT. The GVC course is a 3-day interactive course with live Zoom lectures, a 60-question formal CAA exam, and costs £399 without VAT. There is also a combined GVC + A2 CofC course for £499 without VAT.
Check back regularly for new GVC practice question posts! Please share any topic requests in the comments.
Now, let’s dive into some test GVC drone questions…

Air Law and Responsibilities
This section covers the legal framework for operating drones in the UK. You’ll need to know the relevant regulations like ANO 2022 and key organizations like the CAA. Questions will test your knowledge of drone categories, operational authorizations, and reporting requirements. Know the rules for flights near people and restricted zones.
1. A UAS manufacturer provides technical data and information. Who is responsible for the UAS’s operational performance?
A. The manufacturer
B. The pilot-in-command
C. The UAS owner
D. The CAA
2. The EU UAS Regulation Package is based on which principal concepts?
A. Pilot competence, UAS performance and location
B. Reason for flight, commercial value and risk assessment
C. Operation-centric, risk-based and performance-based
D. Operation-based, task-centric and pilot performance
3. What is the role of the UK CAA?
A. To dictate safety legislation across Europe
B. To directly or indirectly regulate all aspects of aviation in the UK
C. To certify aircraft types
D. To ensure that airport customers receive good service
4. MATZ is an acronym meaning:
A. Mandatory Air Traffic Zone
B. Military Airspace Transit Zone
C. Military Air Transit Zone
D. Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone
5. A flight restriction zone around an ATZ extends to…
A. 5km depending on the length of the longest runway
B. 2km depending on the length of the longest runway
C. 2nm to 2.5nm depending on the length of the longest runway
D. 2nm regardless of the length of the longest runway
6. In the parthenon airmanship model, the foundations are:
A. Teams, skill, proficiency
B. Discipline, skill, proficiency
C. Risk, skill, proficiency
D. Skill, proficiency, practice
7. Overconfidence is:
A. Helpful in the risk assessment process
B. Usually more dangerous than the calculated acceptance of risk
C. Reduces the risk, as it is only perceived risk
D. Is more helpful than underconfidence
Here are all the practice GVC exam questions formatted in Markdown:
8. The ANO defines a congested area as being:
A. Any area of a city, town or settlement which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes
B. Building, town or settlement which is substantially used for residential, industrial or recreational purposes
C. Settlement which is partially used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes
D. An area which is substantially used for residential, industrial, commercial or entertainment and recreational purposes
9. An occurrence should be reported to:
A. Definitely the CAA and possibly the AAIB, depending on the occurrence
B. Definitely the AAIB and possibly the CAA, depending on the occurrence
C. ECCAIRS only
D. Either the AAIB or the CAA or both, depending on the occurrence

UAS Airspace Operating Principles
Understand the various types of controlled and restricted airspace. Expect questions on airspace classes, zones like ATZ/CTR/TIZ, danger areas, prohibited areas, and permission requirements. Know rules for operations near airports, heliports, and other sites. Study aviation charts to identify airspace limits and restrictions.
10. MATZ is an acronym meaning:
A. Mandatory Air Traffic Zone
B. Military Airspace Transit Zone
C. Military Air Transit Zone
D. Military Aerodrome Traffic Zone
11. A flight restriction zone around an ATZ extends to…
A. 5km depending on the length of the longest runway
B. 2km depending on the length of the longest runway
C. 2nm to 2.5nm depending on the length of the longest runway
D. 2nm regardless of the length of the longest runway
12. Is permission needed to fly an unmanned aircraft within a flight restriction zone?
A. Yes always
B. No
C. Only if the mass of the unmanned aircraft is greater than 7kg
D. Only if the mass of the unmanned aircraft is greater than 20kg
13. A Control Zone is an area of airspace surrounding an airport. What is the usual vertical limit above ground level?
A. 2,000 feet
B. 1,000 feet
C. 1,500 feet
D. 3,000 feet
14. What is a Prohibited Area?
A. An area of airspace with defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is sometimes prohibited, for example, areas around military installations and nuclear power stations
B. An area of airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited, for example, areas around military installations and nuclear power stations
C. An area of airspace of defined dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited, for example, areas around beaches and mountains
D. An area of airspace of variable dimensions within which the flight of aircraft is prohibited, for example, areas around large public events
15. With the exception of Heathrow, what are the dimensions of a Runway Protection Zone?
A. 1km wide and 5km from each end of the runway
B. 1km wide and 2,500ft from each end of the runway
C. 10km from each end of the runway but only if it is 1,200m or longer
D. 1.5km wide and 5km from each end of the runway
16. When is an ‘Enhanced Non-Standard Flight’ (ENSF) plan required?
A. In order to operate in any Restricted Area
B. In order to operate in certain Prohibited Areas
C. In order to operate in certain Restricted Areas in London
D. In order to check if it’s safe to enter a Danger Area
17. What does AIP mean?
A. Aeronautical Information Procedure
B. Aviation Information Publication
C. Aeronautical Information Publication
D. Aviation Informal Practices
18. What is the datum for the 400ft rule?
A. Ground level but using the QNE (1013mb) pressure setting
B. Surface level (ASL)
C. Sea level (AMSL)
D. Ground level but using the QNH pressure setting

Airmanship and Aviation Safety
Safety is paramount. Get familiar with risk assessment principles, airmanship models, and human factors. Know potential pilot hazards like fatigue, overconfidence, complacency, and distraction. Understand safety reporting procedures. Expect situational questions on go/no go decisions.
19. In the parthenon airmanship model, the foundations are:
A. Teams, skill, proficiency
B. Discipline, skill, proficiency
C. Risk, skill, proficiency
D. Skill, proficiency, practice
20. Overconfidence is:
A. Helpful in the risk assessment process
B. Usually more dangerous than the calculated acceptance of risk
C. Reduces the risk, as it is only perceived risk
D. Is more helpful than underconfidence
21. Good airmanship requires sound judgement and the following order of priorities:
A. Navigate, fly the aircraft, communicate
B. Communicate, fly the aircraft, navigate
C. Fly the aircraft, navigate, communicate
D. Fly the aircraft, manage the situation, concentrate
22. The I’m Safe checklist includes:
A. Stress, Fatigue and Eating
B. Ingenuity, Ability, Experience
C. Management, Safety, Assessment
D. Skillset, Aptitude, Endurance
23. Machismo is a hazardous attitude for a remote pilot. Characteristic traits of machismo behaviour include:
A. Careful planning and preparation
B. Team co-operation and briefing
C. Impulsivity and arrogance
D. Popularity and extroversion
24. Which of these factors would influence a go/no go decision?
A. You arrive in the operating area and find that there are cows in the field which weren’t there during the pre-deployment survey
B. One of your ground crew calls in sick
C. You arrive onsite and find that the visibility is worse than forecast
D. A, B and C
25. What would be the most effective way of mitigating the risks caused by a ‘flyaway’?
A. Shout out instructions to your crew if anything goes wrong
B. Consult the standard operating procedures in your manual if required
C. Establish an appropriate emergency procedure for each operation and ensure all crew are briefed
D. It isn’t likely to happen – UAS are very reliable
26. What should be borne in mind when the UAS is operating far from the pilot?
A. It’s more likely the operation will be affected by a ground incursion
B. Distance, height and speed become more difficult to judge
C. A ‘flyaway’ is more probable
D. There could be a conflict with controlled airspace
27. Which of the following should be considered when flying near uninvolved people?
A. Flying upwind of the people could result in the UAS falling towards them if it fails
B. Flying downwind of the people could result in the UAS falling towards them if it fails
C. Maintaining horizontal separation from uninvolved persons does not improve flight safety
D. Maintaining horizontal separation from uninvolved persons increases the risk of the pilot losing visual contact with the UAS

Human Performance and Limitations
28. The activity of human communication consists of three parts:
A. Sender, transmitter and receiver
B. Listener, message and receiver
C. Sender, transceiver and receiver
D. Sender, message and receiver
29. Human factors cause what percentage of aviation accidents (including UAS)?
A. 30%
B. 10%
C. 50%
D. 80%
30. Alcohol impairs performance at any level and the impairment increases exponentially with the amount taken. What is the ‘bottle to throttle’ guidance?
A. There should be a gap of at least 12 hours before flight
B. There should be a gap of at least 8 hours before flight
C. There should be a gap of at least 24 hours before flight
D. There should be a gap of at least 6 hours before flight
31. The affect of technology on the pilot’s decision-making process:
A. Is to increase situational awareness
B. Is to decrease situational awareness
C. Is no substitute for situational awareness
D. Makes it less likely that the operating area will be compromised
32. Fatigue affects all pilots. A good method for coping is:
A. Drinking coffee
B. Eating a good meal
C. Drinking energy drinks, such as Red Bull
D. Having a good sleep regime
33. ‘Blind Spot’ is a type of human error referring to a pilot failing to:
A. Detect a problem (conflict) right in middle of the field of view
B. Detect an important warning on the flight controller display
C. Detect a problem (conflict) in the periphery of the field of view
D. Detect a member of ground crew trying to attract their attention

Meteorology
You’ll need basic knowledge of weather factors like wind, visibility, clouds, temperature, pressure, and thunderstorms. Understand weather reports and forecasts. Know the impacts of weather on drone operations and flight limitations.
34. The characteristics of the Earth’s atmosphere vary due to:
A. Pressure temperature density humidity
B. Pressure temperature particulates humidity
C. Gases temperature density particulates
D. Pressure temperature gases humidity
35. The prevailing winds in the UK come from:
A. North east
B. South east
C. South west
D. North
36. The significant dangers of a thunderstorm are:
A. Hailstones, lightning strikes, updrafts, snow
B. Hailstones, lightning strikes, fog, wind, heavy rain
C. Hailstones, lightning strikes, electromagnetic pulse, downdrafts, snow
D. Hailstones, lightning strikes, electromagnetic pulse, updrafts, downdrafts, heavy rain
37. Which of these visibility conditions would allow a UAS operation to be conducted?
A. Horizontal visibility is greater than 500 metres
B. The UAS has to fly 300 metres away: it’s a bit hazy at 200 metres but probably OK
C. Visibility is acceptable in the take-off and landing area
D. The visibility isn’t relevant as long as you stick to the law
38. This is a METAR for EGPH Edinburgh Airport:
METAR: EGPH 231720Z 13005KT 120V180 9999 BKN028 17/13 Q1015
The wind direction and strength is:
A. 130° at 5 knots
B. 130° at 5 knots and variable between 120° and 180°
C. 120° at 18 knots
D. 9999 no significant wind
39. In both a TAF and a METAR, 24016G28KT means:
A. The wind is from 240° at 1600 UTC
B. The wind is from 240° on 16th at 28 knots
C. The wind is from 160° at 28 knots
D. The wind is from 240° at 16 knots with gusts up to 28 knots
40. In an IP rating of IP43, what does the 3 indicate?
A. Protected against sprays of water up to 60° from the vertical
B. Protected against water splashed from all directions
C. Protected against sprays of water up to 45° from the vertical
D. Protected against vertically falling drops of water

Navigation and Charts
Study the principles of navigation like time, speed, and distance. Understand latitude, longitude, and grid references. Be able to read and interpret aviation charts. Expect questions on GPS and its components.
41. GPS works on the principle of triangulation, which is:
A. Distance = velocity x time
B. Time = distance + velocity
C. Velocity = distance x time
D. Time = distance x velocity
42. The GPS system has three main components:
A. Space segment, control segment and differential segment
B. Space segment, control segment and user segment
C. Space segment (geostationary), control segment and user segment
D. Space segment, control segment and ground segment
43. Refer to Topographical Air Chart Sheet 4 Borders. What class is the airspace around Edinburgh Airport (55° 57′ 3’’ N, 3° 21’ 41’’ W)?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
44. Refer to Topographical Air Chart Sheet 4 Borders. What is the airspace at 55° 58’ 3’’ N, 2° 24’ 29’’ W?
A. Danger Area
B. Restricted Area Power Station
C. Prohibited
D. MATZ
45. Refer to Topographical Air Chart Sheet 4 Borders. What feature is at 56° 11’ 10’’ N, 2° 33’ 20’’ W?
A. Bird sanctuary
B. Intensive gliding activity
C. Heliport
D. Towers
46. Refer to Topographical Air Chart Sheet 4 Borders. What feature is at 56° 11’ 8’’ N, 3° 19’ 30’’ W?
A. Bird sanctuary
B. Intensive gliding activity
C. Heliport
D. Towers

UAS General Knowledge
Review key principles of flight and drone systems. Understand forces acting on a drone. Know components like motors, batteries, controllers, sensors, and radios. Expect questions on weight and balance, emergency procedures, maintenance, and preflight inspections.
47. The forces acting on an aircraft are:
A. Thrust, Power, Lift, Weight (Mass)
B. Thrust, Drag, Lift, Weight (Mass)
C. Power, Drag, Lift, Weight (Mass)
D. Thrust, Drag, Push, Weight (Mass)
48. Onboard power supply for UAS electronics (e.g. flight computer, IMUs, GPS etc.) voltage generally uses:
A. 20V
B. 10V
C. 5V
D. 11.5V
49. Dynamic acceleration is useful to measure because:
A. By sensing the amount of dynamic acceleration, you can analyse the way the device is moving
B. It shows the effect of gravity acting on the UAS
C. By comparing to the amount of roll, you can analyse the way the device is moving
D. If specified limits are exceeded, it shows that the UAS is about to crash
50. Radio wave frequencies:
A. Are 2.4MHz and 5.9GHz
B. Are 5.9GHz and 2.9MHz
C. Work in line of sight only
D. Bend around any barriers within 900 metres or thereabouts
51. What is the likely effect on a UAS that is loaded in an uneven manner?
A. The flight time will be reduced
B. The load on the motors will be increased
C. The insurance will be invalidated
D. All of the above, A, B and C
52. Aircraft take-off is best performed:
A. Downwind (the wind blowing from behind)
B. Into wind (the wind blowing from in front)
C. With no wind
D. Any wind direction
53. Fitting a higher amperage battery:
A. Increases flight time but also increases the motor workload
B. Increases flight time and has no effect on the motors as the voltage is the same
C. Increases flight time and does not effect weight (mass)
D. Increases flight time and decreases the motor workload
54. The C rating on a LiPo battery indicates:
A. The capacity in mAh
B. The level of precipitation the battery is certified for
C. The flight duration achievable
D. The continuous discharge rate

Operator Responsibilities
Know the procedures for safe drone operations. This covers mission planning, site surveys, crew roles and responsibilities, normal/emergency procedures, communications, and limitations. Expect situational questions on establishing appropriate safety mitigations.
55. ‘Safe in the air and safe on the ground’ is an important operator responsibility. What would be an appropriate action to take to facilitate this?
A. Make sure you have the permission of the landowner to conduct the job
B. Make sure you have the permission of the client to conduct the job
C. Carry out a full risk assessment of the operating area
D. Don’t consider doing a job in a congested area
56. What is the most important function of an Operations Manual?
A. It helps the operator ensure all UAS are correctly maintained
B. It helps the client to understand the way you will conduct the job
C. It enables observers to refresh their memory of emergency procedures
D. It ensures that jobs are conducted in a safe manner employing best practice
57. If ATC permission is required, establish communications with them:
A. At least a week before the operation regardless of class of UAS
B. After the site survey
C. At the task planning stage and also from the operating site on the day of the flight, if requested
D. There is no requirement for ATC permission if the UAS weighs between 7kg and 20kg
58. Your operating area has some power lines crossing its boundary. What would be an example of putting a mitigating measure in place?
A. Establish an operating procedure for who to call if the UAS hits the power lines
B. Establish an operating procedure that the UAS will not fly within 50m of the power lines and brief the ground crew accordingly
C. Establish an operating procedure that the job can continue as long as visibility is at least 50m so you can see the power lines
D. Establish an operating procedure to inform ATC first if the UAS collides with the power lines
59. What is the MTOM limit for operating in the A2 subcategory?
A. 7kg
B. 25kg
C. 2kg
D. 4kg
60. A pilot is flying a UAS at a height of 300ft. According to the 1:1 rule, what is the minimum safe horizontal distance for any uninvolved persons?
A. 91.5m
B. 150m
C. 50m
D. 30m
Conclusion
I hope these practice questions and explanations have helped provide a sampling of the content you’ll encounter on the actual GVC exam. While the example questions cannot cover the full scope of knowledge required, they should give you a good indication of the format, style, and difficulty level of the real test. Use this content to recognize areas where you need further study. Revisit any mock gvc exam questions you struggled with after strengthening your knowledge in those domains.
The key is to commit the time required to thoroughly learn all the material and get extensive hands-on practice. With proper preparation, you’ll feel confident and ready to successfully pass the GVC exam on your first attempt. Let me know if you have any other topics you’d like me to cover in future practice question posts. And best of luck with your upcoming exam!
1. How many questions are on the GVC exam?
The GVC exam contains 60 multiple choice questions.
2. How long do I have to complete the GVC exam?
You have 2 hours to complete all 60 questions on the exam.
3. What is the passing score for the GVC exam?
You need to score at least 75% (45 out of 60 questions) to pass the GVC exam.
4. Can I use reference materials during the GVC exam?
No, the exam is closed book. No outside reference materials are allowed.
5. What topics are covered on the GVC exam?
The exam covers air law, airspace restrictions, aviation safety, meteorology, navigation, UAS technical knowledge, and operating procedures.
6. How often can I attempt the GVC exam if I don’t pass on the first try?
There is no limit on how many times you can attempt the exam if you do not achieve a passing score.
7. Do I need any qualifications before taking the GVC exam?
No prior qualifications are required to take the GVC exam.
8. What can I do to prepare for the GVC exam?
Studying the reference materials and practice tests is the best way to prepare. Gaining hands-on flight experience can also help reinforce concepts.
9. What do I receive if I pass the GVC exam?
You will receive a certificate showing you are qualified as a GVC remote pilot.
10. How do I register to take the GVC exam?
You can register for the exam through any CAA-approved drone training provider.